Genetics Worksheet

Genetics Worksheet.

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 1

0350 Genetics Fall 2020 Assignment Problems: Cumulative (1) Analysis of vulval development in C. elegans has been important in understanding some key signaling pathways, some that play roles in human cancer. The vulva is the organ through which fertilized eggs leave the mother. Wild-type worms only have one vulva, but mutants have been identified that either have more than one vulva or no vulva. These include mutations in the mpk-1, lin-1, lin-39, let-23 and lin-3 genes. Below is a table that lists single or double mutants and their phenotype.

Mutant (all are homozygous mutants in the indicated gene(s))

phenotype

mpk-1 no vulva lin-1 multiple vulvas lin-3 no vulva lin-39 no vulva let-23 no vulva mpk-1 lin-1 multiple vulvas lin-3 lin-1 multiple vulvas lin-39 lin-1 no vulva let-23 lin-1 multiple vulvas

1 (1a) Who originally chose C. elegans as a model system to study genetics A: Sydney Brenner B: Francis Crick C: Seymour Benzer D: Barbara McCintock 2 (1b) What other major contribution did he make to genetics? A: Uncovered the secrets of the lac operon B: Used T4 phage rII gene frameshift mutants to show that the Genetic Code is composed of triplet codons with no commas C: Used recombination between thousands of T4 phage rII gene mutants to demonstrate that a gene is likely just a linear sequence of nucleotides D: Identified the first gene linked to a chromosome, the white gene of Drosophila

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 2

3 (1c) Which of the pathways below is consistent with the data (if you cannot position some genes unambiguously then they must be placed at the same position in the pathway).

4(1d) Which of the following genes is most likely to encode for a transcription factor? A: lin-3 B: let-23 C: lin-39 D: mpk-1 The following table shows where wild-type protein encoded by the genes is expressed during vulval development.

Gene Cells in which the wild-type gene is expressed

mpk-1 Vulva and cells outside lin-1 Cells outside of the vulva only lin-3 Cells outside of the vulva only lin-39 Vulva and cells outside let-23 Vulva and cells outside

5 (1e) Which gene is most likely to encode for a secreted signaling protein? A: lin-3 B: let-23 C: lin-39 D: lin-1 6 (1f) Which gene is most likely to encode for a receptor for the signaling protein you identified in (1e)? A: lin-3 B: let-23 C: lin-39 D: lin-1

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 3

(2) A pure breeding population of reindeers at the North Pole have red noses. Those in Finland all have black noses while those in Russia all have tan noses. To investigate the genetics of this trait, crosses were done between these pure breeding populations; the most revealing of these was a cross between the Finnish and Russian with the F1 progeny all being black, but a cross between these yielding the following: Black: 89 Tan: 41 Red: 30 7 (2a) Explain these results A: Single gene, two alleles, one incompletely dominant over the other B: Single gene, two alleles, each codominant C: Single gene, three alleles, allelic series D: Two genes, each with two alleles, one completely dominant over the other, and one gene recessively epistatic to the other 8(2b) Would all the tan offspring be pure-breeding like the ones from Russia? A: Yes B: No 9 (2c) What color would the offspring be from a cross between reindeer from the North Pole and Russia A: red B: tan C: black D: pink 10 (2d) Reindeers at the North Pole can fly while those from anywhere else cannot; the ability to fly is controlled by a single gene. A cross between reindeers from the North Pole and Finland produced F1 progeny could not fly and had black noses; these F1s were backcrossed reindeers from the North Pole resulted in following F2 progeny: Black flightless 61 Red flier 59 Black flier 39 Red flightless 41 Is the gene controlling black or red noses in Finnish/North Pole, likely to be linked to that controlling the ability to fly? (Table on last page if needed) A: Yes B: No

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 4

(3) A new mutation that results in eight-legged flies was isolated and was found to be recessive, the gene name was designated extra-legs, el, and the wild-type allele, el+ and the mutant, elR. The mutation was mapped approximately to a region on the 2nd chromosome that included the following known mutant markers (the mutant marker alleles are all recessive and their map position on the chromosome is indicated in the table below).

Gene Wild-type

allele (dominant)

Wild-type phenotype

Mutant marker allele

(recessive) Mutant

phenotype Map position in map units

wingless wg+ Full sized wing wgT No wing 25

orange or+ Red eyes or5 Orange eyes 37

short bristles sb+ Long bristles sbS Short bristles 52 Three crosses were set up: (i) wgT or5 elR/ wgT or5 elR x wg+ or+ el+/ wg+ or+ el+ (ii) or5 sbS elR/ or5 sbS elR x wg+ or+ el+ / wg+ or+ el+ (iii) wgT sbS elR/ wgT sbS elR x wg+ or+ el+/ wg+ or+ el+ The F1 progeny from these crosses were then crossed separately to: wgT or5 sbS elR/ wgT or5 sbS elR (i) F1 heterozygous parent: wgT or5 elR/ wg+ or+ el+ Full wing, red eyes, 6 legs 884 Full wing, orange eyes, 6 legs 46 No wing, red eyes, 6 legs 66 No wing, orange eyes, 6 legs 4 Full wing, red eyes, 8 legs 2 Full wing, orange eyes, 8 legs 23 No wing, red eyes, 8 legs 29 No wing, orange eyes, 8 legs 455 95/1509=0.629 (ii) F1 heterozygous parent: or5 sbS elR/ wg+ or+ el+ Red eyes, long bristles, 6 legs 872 Red eyes, short bristles, 6 legs 70 Orange eyes, long bristles, 6 legs 8 Orange eyes, short bristles, 6 legs 50 Red eyes, long bristles, 8 legs 26 Red eyes, short bristles, 8 legs 5 Orange eyes, long bristles, 8 legs 39 Orange eyes, short bristles, 8 legs 433 (iii) F1 heterozygous parent: wgT sbS elR/ wg+ or+ el+ Full wing, long bristles, 6 legs 736 Full wing, short bristles, 6 legs 200 No wing, long bristles, 6 legs 61 No wing, short bristles, 6 legs 14 Full wing, long bristles, 8 legs 8

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 5

Full wing, short bristles, 8 legs 23 No wing, long bristles, 8 legs 103 No wing, short bristles, 8 legs 322 11 (3a) Between which two marker genes is the el gene located A. wg and or B. wg and sb C. or and sb 12 (3b) What is the distance between wg and el A. 7 m.u B. 9 m.u C. 13 m.u. D. 16 m.u. 13 (3c) Is there anything unusual about the numbers of any of the classes of phenotype in the three crosses? A There are a lot more parentals that would be expected B There are a lot fewer double recombinants that would be expected C Both classes of parentals should be approximately the same but are not D The total number of recombinants is too high compared to the parentals

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 6

(4) If you were to generate mutations for the his gene in Salmonella gene with X-rays and with the chemicals EMS and profavine (i.e. separately) and then sequenced the gene, what might you expect to find in each case? 14 (4a) X-rays A: No sequence because the whole gene is deleted B: Point mutations C: Small insertions and deletions D: Several pyrimidine dimers 15 (4b) EMS A: No sequence because the whole gene is deleted B: Point mutations C: Small insertions and deletions D: Several pyrimidine dimers 16 (4c) Proflavine A: No sequence because the whole gene is deleted B: Point mutations C: Small insertions and deletions D: Several pyrimidine dimers 17 (4d) Which of these mutations might be useful to use in the Ames test? A: All three B: X-ray only C: EMS only D: EMS and proflavine 18 (4e) As well as a mutation in the his gene, the strain of Salmonella used in the Ames test also usually carries a mutation in what other gene? A: Antibiotic resistance B: uvrA or uvrB C: DNA polI D: RND efflux pump

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 7

(5) Different temperature sensitive mutants of E. coli and yeast in genes encoding proteins involved in transcription were grown at the permissive temperature for several generations and while still actively growing the temperature was raised to the restrictive temperature. After raising temperature, the synthesis of new RNA was assessed using radioactively labeled nucleotides. Assume the mutations completely inactivate the proteins at the restrictive temperature and that function of the mutant protein was abolished instantly temperature was raised. What would happen to the level of new RNA synthesized (i.e. radioactive incorporation into RNA) in the following mutants after raising the temperature?) A Transcription would stop instantly B Some RNA would still be synthesized but will be reduced and eventually stop C Levels would probably increase D No effect on the level of transcription 19 (5a) Sigma factor (E. coli) 20 (5b) Subunit Ăź of RNA polymerase (E. coli) 21 (5c) RNA Pol II (yeast) 22 (5d) Rho protein (E. coli)

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 8

(6) Hedgehog (Hh) is a secreted signaling protein that activates the Hh signaling pathway in responding cells resulting in the activation of Hh-target genes that can control cell activities such as proliferation. The pathway is inappropriately activated in some cancers. Key proteins in the Hh pathway are as follows: Hedgehog (Hh): secreted signaling protein found outside cells Patched (Ptc): transmembrane receptor, externally portions of the protein bind Hh, other regions bind to Smo. Note, Ptc is the Hh receptor, but unlike most receptors its activity is inactivated by its ligand, Hh. Smoothened (Smo): transmembrane protein that positively regulates the Hh pathway by binding and inactivating Cos2. Smo activity is inhibited by Ptc. Costal-2 (Cos2): cytoplasmic protein that has 3 separate binding domains. It binds to Smo and that blocks its activity. It binds to GSK/PKA and that forms an active complex. It binds to Gli when the latter active complex forms and that results the processing of Gli to the repressor form. GSK3 and PKA: kinases that phosphorylate Gli to result in its partial degradation Glioblastoma (Gli) Transcription factor that can act as a repressor or activator of transcription. In the absence of Hh, it is partially degraded to a repressor form. In the presence of Hh this does not happen and the full length form is an activator. Absence of Hh: Ptc inactivates Smo by binding to it and preventing it interacting with Cos2, which then binds to Gli, and GSK3 and PKA. The latter 2 phosphorylate Gli and this targets it for partial degradation. The smaller from of Gli enters the nucleus, binds to Hh-target genes and represses their expression. Presence of Hh: Hh binds to its receptor which is Ptc and this prevents Ptc from inactivating Smo, which can now bind Cos2 and preventing GSK3 and PKA from phosphorylating Gli. Gli then remains full length and can enter the nucleus and bind to and activate Hh-target genes. (N.B. some liberties have been taken with pathway to simply the question so don’t take it all completely literally)

 

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 9

23 (6a) Which of the simple genetic pathways below is correct based on the information above.

The table below lists mutations in different regions of proteins in Ptc, Smo and Cos2 in the Hh pathway. (Determine whether the pathway will be on or off in each mutant, i.e. is the gene G is expressed in a homozygous mutant. (c) Determine if the mutation will be a simple loss of function (SLF), possibly a dominant negative (DN) or probably a gain of function (GOF). (0.33 points each) To work out answers to (c) you need to first determine the loss of function phenotype for the gene in question (one mutation of each is obviously a SLF), then determine if each of the other mutations in the same gene would result in the same phenotype or not – if the same then the mutation is either SLF or DN, if the opposite then it would be a GOF. To work out if it is SLF or DN you have to consider what would happen in a heterozygote: can the mutant protein interfere with wild-type protein in some way? Could it block the wild-type protein or would it compete with the wild-type for a protein the wild-type needs to interact with? Note, a mutation in one part of a protein could be DN, while mutation in a different part could be GOF. Hint…only one of the mutants is predicted to act as a DN

 

Protein Mutation (region inactivated) (b) Is pathway always on or off in homozygous mutant (i.e. is gene G expressed)

(c) Is the mutation SLF, possibly DN or probably GOF?

Ptc Deletion of gene 24 6b 32 6j

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 10

Smo Deletion of gene 25 6c 33 6k

Cos2 Deletion of gene 26 6d 34 6l

Ptc Hh binding domain 27 6e 35 6m

Ptc Smo binding domain 28 6f 36 6n

Smo Ptc binding domain 29 6g 37 6o

Cos2 Smo binding domain 30 6h 38 6p

Cos2 Gli binding domain 31 6i 39 6q

24-32 (6b- 6i) Determine whether the pathway will be on or off in each mutant, i.e. is the gene G is expressed in a homozygous mutant. A = On B = Off 33-41 (6j- 6q) Determine if the mutation will be a simple loss of function (SLF), possibly a dominant negative (DN) or probably a gain of function (GOF). A = SLF B = DN C = GOF To work out answers you need to first determine the loss of function phenotype for the gene in question (one mutation of each is obviously a SLF), then determine if each of the other mutations in the same gene would result in the same phenotype or not – if the same then the mutation is either SLF or DN, if the opposite then it would be a GOF. Remember, a GOF mutation is only in relation to the function of the protein itself, not as to whether the pathway is activated by the mutation. So for a gene that functions to inhibit the pathway a SLF mutation will result in the pathway being on all the time, but a GOF would result in the pathway being off all the time. To work out if it is SLF or DN you have to consider what would happen in a heterozygote: can the mutant protein interfere with wild-type protein in some way? Could it block the wild-type protein or would it compete with the wild-type for a protein the wild-type needs to interact with? Note, a mutation in one part of a protein could result in a DN mutation, while mutation in a different part could be GOF. Hint…only one of the mutants is predicted to act as a DN 40 (6r) Based on what you know about other signaling pathways, why might a GSK3 mutant have more complicated phenotypes than would be predicted based on its role in Hh signaling? (2 points) A. It is redundant

 

 

Assignment Problems: Cumulative 0350 Genetics Fall 2020 11

B. It is also involved another pathway – in the Wnt pathway – so loss of GSK3 would affect both pathways C. It is haploinsufficient D. Mutations are always dominant negative

Genetics Worksheet

 
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Meiosis Lab

Meiosis Lab. Cellular reproduction in Eukaryotes involves either mitosis or, in the case of sex cells, meiosis. Mitosis involves the reproduction of a cell into two identical daughter cells. Meiosis, however, is a reduction division where a parental diploid cell produces four haploid gametes. Upon fusion, two haploid gametes (in humans the sperm and the egg) will result in one diploid zygote. In this activity you will track chromosomes through meiosis using colored beads.

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Meiosis

Lab 4

 

 

 

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Lab 4: Meiosis

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Introduc on

Meiosis only occurs in organisms that reproduce sexually. The process generates haploid (1n) cells

called gametes (sperm cells in males and egg cells in fe-

males), or spores in some plants, fungi, and pro sts, that

contain one complete set of chromosomes. Haploid cells

fuse together during fer liza on to form a diploid cell with

two copies of each chromosome (2n).

Genes are the units of heredity that have speciĂžc loci

(loca ons) on the DNA strand and code for inheritable

traits (such as hair color). Alleles are alterna ve forms of the same gene (brown vs. blue eyes). Homol-

ogous chromosomes contain the same genes as each other but o en di erent alleles. Non-sex cells

(e.g. bone, heart, skin, liver) contain two alleles (2n), one from the sperm and the other from the egg.

Mitosis and meiosis are similar in many ways. Meiosis, however, has two rounds of division—meiosis I

and meiosis II. There is no replica on of the DNA between meiosis I and II. Thus in meiosis, the parent

cell produces four daughter cells, each with just a single set of chromosomes (1n).

Meiosis I is the reduc on division– the homologous pairs of chromosomes are separated so that each

daughter cell will receive just one set of chromosomes. During meiosis II, sister chroma ds are sepa-

rated (as in mitosis).

 

 

 

 

 

Concepts to explore:

Meiosis

Diploid cells

Haploid cells

Chromosomal crossover

Concepts to explore:

 

There are over two meters of DNA pack-

aged into a cell’s nucleus. It is coiled and

folded into superhelices that form chro-

mosomes, which must be duplicated be-

fore a cell divides.

Each of the 23 human chromosomes

has two copies. For each chromosome,

there is a 50:50 chance as to which copy

each gamete receives.

That translates to over 8 million possi-

ble combina ons!

 

 

Lab 4: Meiosis

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Meiosis:

Prophase I: The sister chroma ds a ach to their homologous counterparts (same chromo-

some – di erent version). This is the stage where crossing over occurs (homologous chro-

mosomes exchange regions of DNA). Structures which will serve as anchors in the cell

(centrioles) during the division process appear.

Metaphase I: The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. The orienta on of each

pair of homologous chromosomes is independent from all other chromosomes. This

means they can “ßip ßop” as they line up, e ec vely shu ing their gene c informa on

into new combina ons. Microtubules (long strands) grow from each centriole and link

them together while also a aching to each pair of homologous chromosomes.

Anaphase I: The microtubules pull the homologous chromosomes apart (the sister chro-

ma ds remain paired).

Telophase I: One set of paired chromosomes arrives at each centriole, at which me a nu-

cleus forms around each set.

Cytokinesis: The plasma membrane of the cell folds in and encloses each nucleus into two

new daughter cells.

Prophase II: Before any replica on of the chromosomes can take place, the daughter cells

immediately enter into prophase II. New spindle Ăžbers form as the nucleus breaks down.

Metaphase II: The sister chroma ds align in the center of the cell, while the microtubules

join the centrioles and a ach to the chromosomes. Unlike metaphase I, since each pair of

sister chroma ds is iden cal, their orienta on as they align does not ma er.

Anaphase II: The sister chroma ds are separated as the microtubules pull them apart.

Telophase II: The chroma ds arrive at each pole, at which me a nucleus forms around

each.

Cytokinesis: The plasma membrane of the cell folds in and engulfs each nucleus into two

new haploid daughter cells.

We brießy discussed “crossing over” in Prophase I. Since the chromosomes of each parent undergoes

gene c recombina on, each gamete (and thus each zygote) acquires a unique gene c Ăžngerprint.

The closeness of the chroma ds during prophase I, creates the opportunity to exchange gene c mate-

rial (chromosomal crossover) at a site called the chiasma. The chroma ds trade alleles for all genes

located on the arm that has crossed.

The process of meiosis is complex and highly regulated. There are a series of checkpoints that a cell

must pass before the next phase of meiosis will begin. This ensures any mutated cells are iden Ăžed

 

 

Lab 4: Meiosis

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and repaired before the cell division process can con nue.

 

One of the muta ons that is of par cular concern is a

varia on in the amount of gene c material in a cell. It is

cri cal that the gamete contain only half of the chromo-

somes of the parent cell. Otherwise the amount of DNA

would double with each new genera on. This is the key

feature of meiosis.

Figure 1: The stages of meiosis

Muta ons that are not caught by the cell’s

self-check system can result in chromoso-

mal abnormali es like Down’s syndrome, in

which there are 3 copies of chromosome

21.

 

 

Lab 4: Meiosis

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Experiment 1: Following Chromosomal DNA Movement

Every cell in the human body has two alleles that condense into single chromosomes held together by

a centromere. These “sister” chroma ds replicate and pair with the newly made homologous chromo-

somes. In this exercise we will follow the movement of the chromosomes through meiosis I and II to

create haploid (gamete) cells.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Procedure

Meiosis I

A. As prophase I begins, chromosomes coil and condense in prepara on for replica on.

1. a) Using one single color of bead, build a homologous pair of duplicated chromo-

somes. Each chromosome will have 10 beads with a di erent colored centromere

in it.

For example, if there are 20 red beads, 10 beads would be snapped together to

make two di erent strands. In the middle of each of the 10 bead strands, snap

a di erent colored bead in to act as the centromere.

Figure 2: Bead Set-up

Materials

2 sets of di erent colored snap beads (32 of each)

8 centromeres (snap beads)

Blue and red markers*

*You must provide

 

 

Lab 4: Meiosis

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b) Now, repeat these steps using the other color of bead.

2. a) Assemble another homologous pair of chromosomes using only 12 (that’s 6 per

strand) of the Ăžrst color bead. Place another, di erent colored bead in the middle

of each to act is its centromere.

b) Repeat this step (2 strands of 6 beads plus a centromere) with the other color of

beads.

B. Bring the centromeres of two units of the same color and length together so they can be held

together to appear as a duplicated chromosome. Your beads should appear as they do in Fig-

ure 2.

C. Simulate crossing over between the blue and red chromosomes. Bring the two homologous

pairs together (that’d be the two pairs that both have 10 bead strands) and exchange an equal

number of beads between the two. This simulates what occurs during prophase I.

D. ConĂžgure the chromosomes as they would appear in each of the remaining stages of meiosis I.

Use Figure 1 to guide you.

 

Meiosis II

E. ConĂžgure the chromosomes as they would appear in each stage of meiosis II. Use Figure 1 to

guide you.

F. Using the space below, and using blue and red markers, draw a diagram of your beads in each

stage. Beside your picture, write the number of chromosomes present in each cell. This work

will help you answer the ques ons in the lab, but does not need to be submi ed for grading.

 

Meiosis I

Prophase I

 

 

Metaphase I

 

 

 

 

 

Lab 4: Meiosis

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Anaphase I

 

 

 

Telophase I

 

 

 

Meiosis II

Prophase II

 

 

 

Metaphase II

 

 

 

Anaphase II

 

 

 

Telophase II

 

 

F. Return your beads to their original star ng posi on and simulate crossing over again. Track

how this changes the ul mate outcome as you then go through the stages of meiosis I and II.

 

 

Lab 4: Meiosis

49

 

Ques ons

1. Why is crossing over important in heredity?

2. Provide two ways that meiosis I and meiosis II are di erent.

3. a) In this lab, how many chromosomes were present in each cell when meiosis I started?

b) How many chromosomes were present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis II?

4. If humans have 46 chromosomes in each of their body cells, determine how many chromo-

somes you would expect to Ăžnd in the following:

Sperm ___________________

Egg ___________________

Daughter cell from mitosis ___________________

Daughter cell from meiosis II ___________________

5. Why is it necessary to reduce the chromosome number of gametes, but not of other cells of

an organism?

Meiosis Lab

 
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Pre-lab 1- Myths in Science

Pre-lab 1- Myths in Science. Name:______________________ Date: _______

Lab Section:___________

Pre-lab 1- Myths in Science (10 pts)

Read the introduction and “myths” 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8, & 9 in the article, The Principle Elements of the Nature of Science: Dispelling the Myths, by W.F. McComas (Posted on Blackboard in the lab folder). Complete the questions below and turn this page in at the beginning of lab.

PLEASE ALWAYS WEAR CLOSED TOED SHOES AND PANTS TO LAB!

1) Explain what the author means when he says that there is no well-accepted theory of gravity.

 

Answer

 

A scientific law or scientific principle is a concise verbal or mathematical statement of a relation that expresses a fundamental principle of science, like Newton’s law of universal gravitation. A scientific law must always apply under the same conditions, and implies a causal relationship between its elements. A law differs from a scientific theory in that it does not posit a mechanism or explanation of phenomena: it is merely a distillation of the results of repeated observation. As such, a law limited in applicability to circumstances resembling those already observed, and is often found to be false when extrapolated.

 

2) Compare the difference between the application of laws in biology versus the physical sciences.

Answer

 

The main difference is that Biology deals with living organisms, but the ramifications of this fact go beyond just the subject matter, because it also affects the nature of the scientific methods employed by biologists.

Understanding Organisms: One approach to understanding a phenomenon is to reduce it to its fundamental aspects, and, by understanding each component, you can gain some appreciation of the overall process. This approach, often referred to as reductionism, is useful, especially in the physical sciences, where, for example, a knowledge of the behavior of individual atoms allows you to predict the dynamics of a reaction system. However, the hierarchical organization of biological systems makes it impossible to understand all aspects of even a single organism by studying each of its components. Furthermore, there are certain biological processes, like Natural Selection, which cannot be predicted based on only a knowledge of Physics and Chemistry. In other words, the entire range of material phenomena are to be found in biological systems, whereas Physics and Chemistry only deal with a subset of these phenomena.

 

3) Explain what is meant by “generalizing” versus “explanatory” when applied to hypotheses.

 

Answer

 

Hypothesis simply means an educated guess. The reality of hypothesis can be complex. Explanatory hypothesis often referred as Trial Theory, is where hypothesis relates to an idea that may become a theory with more evidence and agreement from scientists. In other words, the trial hypothesis or idea is not yet validated, but if it is it becomes a scientific theory. While

Generalizing hypothesis or trial law is where hypothesis relates to an idea that may become a law with more evidence and agreement from scientists. In other words, the trial hypothesis or idea is not yet validated, but if it is it becomes a scientific law.

 

 

4) Explain the problem of induction in your own words and provide an example to illustrate this problem.

Answer

 

The problem of induction is the philosophical question of whether inductive reasoning leads to knowledge understood in the classic philosophical sense, since it focuses on the alleged lack of justification for either:

Generalizing about the properties of a class of objects based on some number of observations of particular instances of that class (for example, the inference that “all swans we have seen are white, and therefore all swans are white”, before the discovery of black swans) or

Presupposing that a sequence of events in the future will occur as it always has in the past (for example, the laws of physics will hold as they have always been observed to hold).

 

 

 

5) In your own words, explain why a scientist should never say that their hypothesis is “proven true”?

Answer

 

Well since a hypothesis is an educated guess it only come from what you think. It’s almost like an opinion. Example. If someone doesn’t like a movie but you say it’s the best, you can’t prove it to somebody else because it all depends on their opinion. Or another way to explain it is if you were talking to the person who didn’t like the movie you can’t prove it to them that it was good because that person has another opinion and thinks the opposite.

 

6) What does it mean for something to be falsifiable? Provide an example of a falsifiable hypothesis and a non-falsifiable hypothesis.

Answer

 

A statement is called falsifiable if it is possible to conceive an observation or an argument which proves the statement in question to be false. In this sense, falsify is synonymous with nullify, meaning not “to commit fraud” but “show to be false”.

 

For example, Newton’s Theory of Gravity was accepted as truth for centuries, because objects do not randomly float away from the earth. It appeared to fit the figures obtained by experimentation and research, but was always subject to testing.

 

However, Einstein’s theory makes falsifiable predictions that are different from predictions made by Newton’s theory, for example concerning the precession of the orbit of Mercury, and gravitational lensing of light. In non-extreme situations Einstein’s and Newton’s theories make the same predictions, so they are both correct. But Einstein’s theory holds true in a superset of the conditions in which Newton’s theory holds, so according to the principle of Occam’s Razor, Einstein’s theory is preferred. On the other hand, Newtonian calculations are simpler, so Newton’s theory is useful for almost any engineering project, including some space projects. But for GPS we need Einstein’s theory.

 

 

7) Consider the first chapter reading from the text book, give an example of a scientist(s) failure to be objective when drawing conclusions from their data in that reading.

 

Answer

 

Steven Jay Gould pointed out in science textbook “The Case of the Creeping Fox Terrier Clone (1988)”

The “fox terrier” refers to the classic comparison used to express the size of the dawn horse, tiny precursor to the modern horse. This comparison was unfortunate because of two reasons. Not only was this horse ancestor much bigger than a fox terrier, but the fox terrier breed of dog is virtually unknown to American students.

The major criticism leveled by Gould is that once this comparison took hold, no one bothered checking its validity or utility. Through time, one author after another simply repeated the inept comparison and continued a tradition making many science texts virtual clones of each other on this and countless other points.

 

 

 

 

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Edited 8/26/15 Biology 111 Lab Page

Pre-lab 1- Myths in Science

 
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Cycle Ergometer and Step Submaximal Graded Exercise Tests

Cycle Ergometer and Step Submaximal Graded Exercise Tests.

LAB 2​​

Demonstration of Cycle Ergometer and Step Submaximal Graded Exercise Tests

Purpose

This laboratory experience is designed to illustrate the pretesting, testing, and posttesting procedures for conducting a submaximal graded exercise test (GXT) on the cycle ergometer and step and to develop your skill in administering these tests.

Equipment

· Stationary cycle ergometer

· Step with risers

· HR monitor

· Sphygmomanometer

· Metronome

Student Assignments

1. Select one apparently healthy student to serve as the client.

2. Select one or two students to prep the client for the test.

3. Assign one student to monitor and collect HR data from HR monitor.

4. Select one student to measure palpated HRs.

5. Select one student to measure BPs.

6. Select one student to set and monitor work rates on cycle ergometer.

7. Select one student to monitor client throughout test and to obtain client’s RPE.

Testing Procedures

1. Select an appropriate cycle ergometer protocol for the client.

2. Prepare the client for the test, explain purpose and nature of the GXT, measure height and body weight, position electrodes, and calculate target HR for test termination if required by the GXT protocol.

3. Collect resting data. Measure resting HR using palpation and HR monitor. Measure resting BP using auscultatory method.

4. Collect exercise data. Measure exercise HR every minute using palpation and HR monitor. Measure exercise BP during last 2 min of each stage of test. Ask client for RPE during last minute of each stage of test. Closely monitor client throughout test, checking for signs and symptoms that indicate the test should be terminated. Make certain that client achieves a steady-state HR during the last 2 min of each stage (HR values within ±5 to 6 bpm) before increasing the work rate.

5. Continue GXT until test protocol is completed or target exercise HR is achieved, or HR, BP data indicate test should be stopped, or client voluntarily terminates the test.

6. Collect recovery data for 3 to 5 min. Measure recovery HR every minute using palpation and HR monitor. Measure recovery BP every 2 to 3 min.

Data Analysis

1. Use the HR and work rate data from the last two exercise stages to estimate the client’s VO2max using the multistage method. Hint: Use the ACSM cycle ergometry equation (see table 4.3) to calculate the metabolic cost for the last two exercise stages. Note: Use ACSM equation only if client obtained steady state (i.e., HRs during last 2 min of each stage are within ±5 to 6 bpm) for the last two stages of the GXT.

2. Graph the HR versus energy cost (ml · kg-1 · min-1) data for the last two stages. Estimate the client’s VO2max using the graphing method.

3. Determine the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness level by classifying the estimated VO2max (see table 4.1).

4. Graph the client’s HR response during each minute of exercise and recovery. Plot HR on the y-axis and time on the x-axis.

5. Extra credit: Correlate the client’s exercise HRs obtained from palpation and the HR monitor using the Pearson product-moment correlation technique (rx,y).

Data Collection Form for Cycle Ergometer and Step Submaximal Graded Exercise Test

Client’s Demographics

Name ____________________ Date _________
Age ___32__ yr Body weight _80___ kg
Height __174___ cm  

Resting Data

HR ____86__ bpm

BP ____125/80__ mmHg

GXT Test 1 Data: Astrand-Rhyming Cycle Ergometer Test

Protocol __________________

Target HR for test termination (if needed) ________ bpm

Minute Work rate HR palpated HR monitored RPE Systolic BP Diastolic BP
  kgm · min-1 Watt          
1       140   140 80
2       148   160 85
        152   165 80
4       156   160 80
5       160   160 75
6       160   140 80

Recovery Data HR Sys Dys

1         139 120 80
2         120 120 80
3         115 110 70
4              
5              

Reasons for stopping the test:

GXT Test 2 Data: Harvard Step Test

Protocol __________________

Target HR for test termination (if needed) ___188_____ bpm

Minute Work rate HR palpated HR monitored RPE Systolic BP Diastolic BP
  kgm · min-1 Watt          
1       162      
2       180      
3       189      
4       189      
5       191      
6              

Recovery Data

1              
2              
3              
4              
5              

Reasons for stopping the test:

Converting predicted VO2 max values from absolute (L/min) to relative (ml/kg/min).

mL/min = L/min *1000

mL/kg/min = mL/ body weight in kg

Ex. An 80 kg man achieved a peak VO2 of 4.7 L/min

4700 mL/min = 4.7 L/min *1000

58.75 mL/kg/min = 4700 mL/min/ 80kg

Lab report: Due October 15

This lab is a comparison between the submaximal step test and submaximal bike test. You will be comparing your data and evaluating results from each test.

5 From V. Heyward and A. Gibson. 2014, Advanced Fitness Assessment and Exercise Prescription instructor guide, 7th ed. (Champaign, IL: Human Kinetics).

Cycle Ergometer and Step Submaximal Graded Exercise Tests

 
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