Biology Solutions 100% A+

Biology Solutions 100% A+. Exam 3 Biology 1307

1. True or False. All protists are eukaryotic.

A. true

B. false

2. Chloroplasts arose via _____.

A. endosymbiosis of dinoflagellates

B. endosymbiosis of cyanobacteria

C. endosymbiosis of fungi

D. endosymbiosis of euglenids

3. According to the endosymbiosis theory, how many membranes should a mitochondrion have?

A. One

B. Three

C. Two

D. Zero

4. You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a ________.

A. foraminiferan

B. diatom

C. ciliate

D. dinoflagellate

E. slime mold

5. Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?

A. There is no common set of synapomorphies that define a protist

B. Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.

C. Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.

D. Protists do not share a single common ancestor.

6. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because _____.

A. the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants

B. photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains

C. photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels

7. Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because ________.

A) photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains

B) photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon

dioxide levels

C) the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants

D) photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere

8. Which of these taxa contains species that produce potent toxins that can cause extensive fish kills, contaminate shellfish, and poison humans?

A. red algae

B. dinoflagellates

C. diplomonads

D. euglenids

9. Which of the following might be a result of adding a secondary consumer to the aquatic ecosystem in the accompanying illustration?

A. a decrease in the number of primary consumers

B. a decrease in the population of decomposers

C. an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide

D. an increase in the population of scavengers

E. a decrease in the carbon sink

10. The Irish potato famine was caused by an organism that belongs to which species?

A. Phytophtorainfestans

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

C. Giardia spp.

D. Trypanozomacruzi

11. Which of the following eukaryotic lineages contains species that all lack functioning mitochondria?

A. Excavata

B. Rhizaria

C. Amoebozoa

D. Stramenopila

12. Pseudopods that can perform phagocytosis and have the ability to change their shape are generally characteristic of which group?

A. radiolarians

B. amoebas

C. slime molds

D. oomycetes

13. Which of the following is a synapomorphy that defines all green algae and land plants?

A. Seeds B. Vascular tissue C. Cell walls D, Photosynthetic chloroplasts

14. One of the fish in your aquarium dies. Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay?

A. an apicomplexan

B. a dinoflagellata

C. a water mold

D. a ciliate

E. a euglenid

15. According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food?

A. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

B. The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide.

C. The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose.

D. The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive.

E. The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell.

16. Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?

A. gametophyte → gamete → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte

B. sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte

C. gametophyte → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte

D. gamete → fusion → gametophyte →spore → sporophyte → gamete

17. In examining a protist, you notice that it lacks a cell wall, and has movement with cytoplasmic streaming. These data allow you to infer that the species belongs to which of the following protist groups?

A. Excavata

B. Stramenopila

C. Rhizaria

D. Alveolata

E. Amoebozoa

18. Chagas disease is spread by the “kissing bug”. This disease affect 16-18 million people around the world and causes about 50,000 deaths annually and is caused by which protist?

A. Giardia

B. Trichomonas vaginalis

C. Trypanosoma cruzi

D. Plasmodioum

19. Dysentery is caused by _______________ and causes severe diarrhea. It is mostly prevalent in countries with a warm climate and poor sanitary conditions. In some places it is known as “Montezuma’s revenge”. Which of the following protists causes dysentery

A. Entamoeba histolytica

B. Phytophthora infestans

C. Plasmodioum

D. Dinoflagellates

20. What impact will the loss of land plants have on the soil?

A. Increase soil stability

B. Increase soil erosion

C. Increase nutrient levels

D. Decrease surface temperature

21. The major function of the medicinal compounds in plants is to _____.

A. as defense against herbivores

B. attract pollinators for seed dispersal

C. attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits

D. defend the plant against microbes

22. The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably _____.

A. liverworts and mosses B. green algae C. kelp (brown alga) D. cyanobacteria

23. What evidence indicates the movement of plants from water to land?

A. sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves

B. loss of structures that produce spores

C. remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells

D. waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves

24. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A. carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and ferns

B. rise and diversification of angiosperms

C. colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D. extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

25. Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success?

A. embryos enclosed within seed coats

B. sperm cells without flagella

C. fruits enclosing seeds which contain the plant embryo

D. wind pollination

26. Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because _____.

A. bacteria are not made of cells

B. protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack

C. protists eat bacteria

D. protists are photosynthetic

27. The term gymnosperm refers to plants _____.

A. with “naked seeds” that do not produce flowers

B. that are non-vascular

C. that flower

D. with seeds protected within a fruit

28. What trait gives seeds an advantage over spores?

A. Protected from the environment

B. Small in size

C. Contain nutrients

D. Long-lived

29. Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants?

A. desiccation

B. too much sunlight

C. a shortage of carbon dioxide

D. animal predation

30. _____ are angiosperms.

A. Roses

B. Fiddlehead ferns

C. Sphagnum mosses

D. Pine trees

31. Primary producers such as plants and green algae ____________.

A. Convert solar energy (light) to chemical energy (sugars)

B. Decompose decaying material in soil to produce energy

C. Consume other organisms to produce chemical energy (sugars) and solar energy (light)

D. Produce CO2 by performing photosynthesis

32. Plants provide many ecosystem services including production of oxygen and holding the soil. What is an ecosystem?

A. All the organisms or biotic factors in a particular area

B. All the living and nonliving components in a particular area

C. The nonliving or abiotic components in a particular area

D. All plants and animals in a given region

33. Stoma (plural: stomata) are____________.

A. Small openings called pores surrounded by specialized guard cells

B. Watertight sealants produced by plants to avoid desiccation

C. Specialized organelles in plant cells to perform photosynthesis

D. Modified leaves in a plant to avoid predation by herbivores

34. Flowers, the reproductive organ of a flowering plant, has two key reproductive structures called:

A. Seed and pistil

B. Stamen and fruit

C. Stamen and pistil

D. Seed and anther

35. The three main ways in which pollen is transported from plant to plant or flower to flower are:

A. Animals, wind, water

B. Wind, fungi, water

C. Animals, bees, wind

D. Fungi, water, insects

36. _____________ is a process by which pollen is transferred in plants.

A. Pollen grains

B. Style

C. Pollination

D. Translocation

37. True or False. The female part of the flower is the stamen.

A. True B. False

38. True or False. The main function of the endosperm is to provide nutrients for the embryo plant.

A. True B. False

39. True or False. Plants and not algae are the main primary producers in Earth’s oceans.

A. True B. False

40. True or False. Bryophytes such as mosses lack vascular tissue (xylem and phloem).

A. True B. False

41. Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ________.

A. anchor a plant in the soil

B. store starches

C. increase the surface area for absorption

D. provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria

E. contain xylem tissue

42. As fuels, wood and coal ________.

A) are the main fuel sources in industrialized countries today.

B) are both formed from living or fossil plants.

C) are both formed under pressure deep in the Earth.

D) are sustainable as they are even now being made at high rates.

43. Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests ________.

A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

B) wind-pollinated plants arose first

C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats

D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats

44. Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)?

A) extensive growth of gymnosperm forests

B) Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages containing most of the major morphological innovations

C) colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses

D) rise and diversification of angiosperms

E) carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes

45. Why are seedless vascular plants considered paraphyletic rather than monophyletic?

A) Some of the groups within the seedless vascular plants are more closely related to each other than to other groups (such as Lycophyta).

B) They share a more recent common ancestor with seeded plants than they do with the non-vascular plants.

C) All of the groups contained within the seedless vascular plants do not have the same ancestor.

D) The group includes their common ancestor but also the seeded descendants of that same ancestor.

46. Which set contains the most closely related terms?

A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule

B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary

C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

47. In the process of alternation of generations, the ________.

A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes

B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores

C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores

D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes

E) spores unite to form a zygote

48. Where are you LEAST likely to see green algae?

A) as pink snow in the mountains in summer

B) growing symbiotically with fungi in lichens or with some invertebrate animals

C) growing independently on dry rock in meadows

D) growing independently on wet rock in ponds and lakes

E) floating in seas and oceans

49. When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium ________.

A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst

B) cells infect the human liver cells

C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells

D) oocyst undergoes meiosis

50. Carbon dioxide enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the ________.

A) cuticle

B) epidermal trichomes

C) stoma

D) phloem

E) walls of guard cells

51. Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil?

A) root cap

B) root hairs

C) the thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem

D) storage roots

E) sections of the root that have secondary xylem

52. When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does NOT happen to plant cells, because ________.

A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water

B) the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength

C) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis

D) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water

E) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell

53. Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will ________.

A) have a faster rate of osmosis

B) have a lower water potential

C) have a higher water potential

D) have a faster rate of active transport

E) be flaccid

54. Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast?

A) pericycle

B) cortex

C) epidermis

D) endodermis

E) exodermis

55. You are conducting an experiment on plant growth. You take a plant fresh from the soil that weighs 5 kilograms (kg). Then you dry the plant overnight and determine the dry weight to be 1 kg. Of this dry weight, how much would you expect to be made up of oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen?

A) 1 gram

B) 4 grams

C) 40 grams

D) 960 grams

E) 1 kg

56. Which of the following statements about essential nutrients are TRUE? Essential nutrients ________.

I. are necessary for plant growth and reproduction

II. are required for a specific structure or metabolic function

III.cannot be synthesized by a plant

IV.are produced by symbiotic bacteria

A) I and IV

B) II, III, and IV

C) I, II, and III

D) I, II, III, and IV

57. Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?

A) molecular weight of the element or compound

B) the quantities of each required by plants

C) how they are used in metabolism

D) whether or not they are essential for plant growth

58. A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if the ________.

A) mineral is a micronutrient

B) mineral is very mobile within the plant

C) mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis

D) mineral is a macronutrient

E) older leaves are in direct sunlight

59.Which of the following elements correctly pairs an essential element in plants with its function?

A) nitrogen–component of nucleic acids, proteins, hormones, coenzymes

B) magnesium–component of nucleic acids, phospholipids, ATP

C) phosphorus–cofactor functioning in protein synthesis

D) sulfur–component of DNA; activates some enzymes

60.Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process?

A) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth.

B) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy.

C) Nitrogen-fixing capacity can be genetically engineered.

D) None of the above

61.Nitrogen fixation is a process that ________.

A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials

B) converts ammonia to ammonium

C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate

D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia

E) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials and converts ammonia to ammonium

62.Which of the following, if used as a fertilizer, would be most immediately available for plant uptake?

A) NH3

B) N2

C) CN2H2

D) NO3-

63. In what way do nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants? Only nitrogen ________.

A) can be lost from the soil

B) can be provided by symbiotic bacteria

C) is needed for protein synthesis

D) is held by cation exchange capacity in the soil

E) can be absorbed by root hairs

64. What is the correct sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

A) Rhizobia release Nod factors; roots release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

B) Rhizobia release flavonoids; roots release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

C) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex.

D) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms.

E) Nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; rhizobia release flavonoids and Nod factors.

65. Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant’s supply of ________.

A) water

B) carbohydrates

C) lipids and steroids

D) nitrogen, nutrient, and other minerals

66. Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation in root nodules is correct?

A) The plant contributes the nitrogenase enzyme.

B) The process is relatively inexpensive in terms of ATP costs.

C) Leghemoglobin helps maintain a low oxygen concentration within the nodule.

D) The process tends to deplete nitrogen compounds in the soil.

E) The bacteria of the nodule are autotrophic.

67. Most of the dry mass of a plant is derived from ________.

A) NO3- and CO2

B) K+ and CO2

C) PO4 and K+

D) H2O and K+

E) H2O and CO2

Biology Solutions 100% A+

 
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What Is The Key To The Recognition Of Codominance?

What Is The Key To The Recognition Of Codominance?. Question 5

What is the key to the recognition of codominance?

A- The alleles affect more than one trait.
B- The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes.
C- The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
D- The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
E- The dominant allele is not always expressed.

Question 22

Answer the next questions using the pedigree below. Assume that deafness (dd) is caused by a single gene and is recessive to Hearing.

What would be the genotype of individual number 1?

A- None of the alleles can be determined
B- D_
C- dd
D- Dd
E- DD

Question 25

Answer the question using the pedigree above. Assume that deafness (dd) is caused by a single gene and is recessive to Hearing. Given that individual #4 and an another individual with genotype Dd are married and want to have children. What is the probability that they have a deaf girl?

A- 0%
B- Cannot be determined from the data
C- 50%
D- 25%
E- 12.5%

Question 26

My wife and I had three girls in a row, Amber, Melissa, and Camila and we recently had a little baby boy (so 3:1 ratio girls to boys). What is the chance that our next child (assume we have not determined the gender) will be male?

A- 25%
B- 33%
C- 67%
D- 50%
E- 75%

Question 30

Given the template DNA strand TACACCTCCCTACTACTCCCGGGATC, and that the string of bases CTACTACT represents an intron region. What is the mRNA processed transcript?

Ans:

Question 33

Based on the phylogenetic tree below, which of the following is most correct?

A- HIV is not related to SIV because Humans did not evolve from chimps
B- HIV evolved multiple times from SIV
C- Since humans are more evolved than chimps, HIV is more evolved than SIV
D- HIV M evolved from HIV O

Question 38

The image below shows evidence from a RFLP analysis from your DNA forensics lab. The defendant testified that the blood on his clothes was his own. What statement below best fits this testimony.

A- He has a valid point because some of the lines seem to match up.
B- It could have been anyone’s blood.
C- He is telling the truth because he is under oath
D- The pattern clearly shows that the blood matches the victims blood
E- There is no way to tell if the blood really is his because it had already dried

Question 41

What is the approximate probability of someone else having the same STR Profile as the one in this figure:

Use the table below to calculate the probability.
Locus Allele Frequency
D3S1358 12 0.015
D3S1358 13 0.015
D3S1358 14 0.1341
D3S1358 15 0.2896
D3S1358 16 0.2287
D3S1358 17 0.1616
D3S1358 18 0.1616
D3S1358 19 0.0152

VWA 12 0.015
VWA 14 0.1311
VWA 15 0.1189
VWA 16 0.186
VWA 17 0.2774
VWA 18 0.189
VWA 19 0.0884
VWA 20 0.015

FGA 18 0.015
FGA 19 0.061
FGA 20 0.125
FGA 21 0.1799
FGA 22 0.2287
FGA 23 0.1311
FGA 24 0.1463
FGA 25 0.0945
FGA 26 0.0183
FGA 27 0.015

A- 39 out of 10,000
B- 12 out of 1000
C- 12 out of a billion
D- 39 out of 1,000,000 people

Question 3

What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science?

A- Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions.
B- Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning.
C- Discovery science “discovers” new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not.
D- There is no difference between them.
E- Discovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature.

Question 4

Aside from Natural selection, Darwin was the first biologist to propose:

A- Mutations in the genes can lead to new variation
B- genetic inheritance, stonger genes in parents lead to stronger genes in the offspring
C- Tree like structure to describe evolution
D- Darwin did not propose anything new aside from natural selection.
E- The evolution of species over time

Question 6

Which of these would Darwin not agree with:

A- The idea that individuals striving to survive leads to better adapted species
B- Evolution via natural selection requires long amounts of time
C- Common ancestry for all of life
D- Significant weight should be given to geology and fossils as evidence of evolution

Question 8

Natural selection always results in ______.

A- an increase in the size of a population
B- increased genetic variation
C- offspring better adapted to a future environment
D- a decrease in the size of a population
E- offspring better adapted to their parents’ environment than were their parents

Question 11

Which of the following is a characteristic of a non-trivial organization system?

A- Only experts in the field would be able to understand it
B- You get more out of it than what you put in it.
C- Tradition trumps new evidence
D- Organized alphabetically
Question 15

For the following questions, determine the ones that can be addressed by Science.

A- How old is the Earth?
B- What morphological characteristics were likely present in the common ancestor of humans and chimps?
C- Why was the Earth created?
D- How does coffee affect ulcers?
E- Are humans most closely related to chimpanzees?

Question 24

Identify each scenario as either a pre-zygotic or post-zygotic barrier to reproduction:

A- Populations never come into contact with each other
B- Offspring fail to reproduce
C- Male and female gametes fail to unite in fertilization.
D- Mating behaviors are not recognized by different organisms
E- Embryos are inviable and do not survive more than a few days
F- Genitalia structures are far too different to allow successful copulation

Question 25

Match the following species concept with one of its disadvantages.

A- Biological species concept
B- Phylogenetic species concept
C- Morphological species concept

Question 26

Which of the following are evidences that evolution has occurred (Mark all that apply): Choose at least one answer.
A- All of the different varieties of dogs that were artificially selected
B- Relatively young earth – less than 10 thousand years.
C- The fossil record
D- Adaptations acquired during life passed on to offspring
E- ack of homology among organisms
F- Marsupial radiation
G- All organisms share the same four DNA nucleotides (A T G C)
H- modern interpretation of the bible
I- Existence of vestigial organs
J- Humans evolving from modern day chimpanzee

Question 28

Mark all that apply: Which of the following is the equivalent to branching points on phylogenetic trees?

A- Speciation events
B- Nodes
C- Branches
D- Common ancestors
E- Internodes

Question 25

Which of the following best describes an enzyme?

A- They lower the amount of energy present in the substrate.
B- They lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
C- They raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate.
D- They heat up the reactants so that reactions occur at a greater speed.

Question 35

A pair of sex chromosomes found in a human male is most like

A- identical twins.
B- a pair of blue jeans.
C- a bride and groom.
D- a knife, fork, and spoon.

Question 46

What are the three main ingredients in photosynthesis?

A- Nitrogen
B- Carbon dioxide
C- Simple sugars
D- Oxygen
E- Light
F- ATP
G- Water

 

What Is The Key To The Recognition Of Codominance?

 
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Genetics Take Home Test

Genetics Take Home Test.

Genetics 303 Dr. Joe Staton Fourth exam—take home Answer on separate paper, show all work, and be neat in the reporting of answers. STAPLE YOUR RESULTS! 1. In a human population, the genotype frequencies at one locus are 0.75 AA, 0.2 Aa, and 0.05 aa. What is the frequency

of the A allele [f(A)] and a allele [f(a)] for the population? Are they in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 2. Calculate the number of heterozygotes in a population with p = 0.55 and q = 0.45 (at time = 0). After 4 generations of

inbreeding between siblings (F = 0.25) in a population of 1000. 3. Human albinism is an autosomal recessive trait. Suppose that you find an isolated village in the Andes where seven

people are albino. If the population size of the village was 783 and the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to this trait, how many individuals are expected to be carriers (heterozygotes)?

4. A boatload of Swedish tourists, all of whom bear the MM blood group, is marooned on Haldane Island, where they are

met by an equally sized population of Islanders, all bearing blood group NN. In time, the castaways become integrated into Island society. Assuming random mating, no mutation, no selection (based on blood group), and no genetic drift, what would you expect the blood group distribution to be among 1500 progeny of the new Haldane Island population?

5. You identify a population of mice (Peromyscus maniculatus) on an island. Their coat color is controlled by a single

gene: BB mice are black, Bb mice are gray, and bb mice are white. You take a census of the population and record the following numbers of mice:

Black 507 Gray 546 White 147 (a) What are the frequencies of the two alleles? (b) What are the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium frequencies for these three phenotypes? (c) A heat wave hits the island. All 507 mice with black fur die from heat stroke, but the other mice survive. What are the

new allele frequencies for the population? (d) If the population suffers no further cataclysms after the heat wave, and the surviving animals mate randomly, what will

be the frequency of mice with black fur in the next generation? (e) If the climate is altered permanently, so that mice with black fur die before reproducing, which following statement is

correct? (1) At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, f(B) will equal 0.135. (2) The fitness of mice with gray fur (ωBb) must be equal to 0.5. (3) The fitness of mice with black fur (ωBB) is 0. (4) The B allele will disappear from the population in one generation. (5) The B allele will disappear from the population in two generations.

6. Which of the following are requirements for evolution by natural selection? Explain your answer. I Environmental change II Differential survival and reproduction III Heritability of phenotypic variation IV Variation in phenotype V Sexual reproduction

A) II, III, V B) II, III, IV C) I, II, IV D) III, IV, V E) II, IV, V

 

 

 

7. Which of the following processes is the source (origin) of genetic variation within populations? A) Reproductive Isolation B) Asexual reproduction C) Selection D) Mutation E) Genetic drift

Explain your answer including a description of what the others do to variation. 8. If the population (14,926 in 2013) of folks in Perry, GA, have an f(a) = 0.1 and folks in Valdosta, GA, has a f(a) = 0.7,

then how many people from Valdosta, GA, would have to migrate to Perry to increase the population to a f(a) = 0.15?

9. What is the Ne of a population with the following annual censuses, [note the drop in size due to 2005 being an extreme

drought year]? 2001: 10,000 2002: 9,700 2003: 8,800 2004: 4,600 2005: 700 2006: 2,400 2007: 3,800 2008: 7,650 2009: 8,400 2010: 9,700 2011: 10,110 2012: 11,060

10. Consider the following populations that have the genotypes shown in the following table: Population AA Aa aa 1 1.0 0.0 0.0 2 0.0 1.0 0.0 3 0.25 0.50 0.25 4 0.25 0.25 0.50 5 0.32 0.36 0.32 6 0.04 0.32 0.64 7 0.64 0.32 0.04 8 0.9025 0.095 0.0025

a. What are p and q for each population? b. Which of the populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? c. Populations 1 and 2 have a tree fall across their islands so that individuals can cross. If equal numbers of the

individuals occur on each island, what is the new population’s allele frequencies and genotype frequencies after one generation of random mating?

d. In population 3, the a allele is less fit than the A allele, and the A allele is incompletely dominant. The result is that AA is perfectly fit (= 1.0), Aa has a fitness of 0.85, and aa has a fitness of 0.65. With no mutation or migration, graph the allele frequency of the a allele for 10 generations under selection (e.g., Time 0 = q above, Time 1 = first generation after selection)

e. In population 8, the population size gets radically reduced to 200 individuals, total. What is the most likely fate of the “a” allele, and what genetic principle would lead you to believe that the case?

 

 

11. You are given the following genetic data matrix of distances for crustaceans calculated for a region of the mtDNA called the 16S rDNA:

Brine Shrimp Striped-leg hermit King Crab Soldier crab Flat-claw hermit Long-clawed hermit Brine Shrimp ─ Striped-leg hermit 0.354 ─ King Crab 0.309 0.260 ─ Soldier crab (hermit) 0.321 0.268 0.067 ─ Flat-claw hermit 0.337 0.245 0.108 0.111 ─ Long-clawed hermit 0.312 0.249 0.090 0.096 0.044 ─ Calculate the average distance and draw the resulting UPGMA tree based on these distances. Write a brief interpretation of the branching pattern in the tree. 12. You digest a linear piece of DNA with two restriction enzymes, BamH1 & Sma1, and get the following sized fragments (in kb [kilobases]): BamHI SmaI BamHI & SmaI 13 kb 11 kb 10 kb 6 kb 5 kb 5 kb 3 kb 3 kb 1 kb Draw the appropriate restriction fragment map based on this data labeling all restriction sites. Extra Credit: You have a population of gribbets in captivity where the adults have a genetic frequency of f(A)=0.5 and f(a) = 0.5. When randomly mated, they have offspring that are represented in the following frequencies: f(AA) f(Aa) f(aa) 0.194444 0.555556 0.25 But you notice that the total generational reproduction level is only 90% that of wild populations (i.e. the ω is only 0.9). Work backwards to figure out the type of condition from table 25.5, and calculate the equilibrium frequency for the a allele (q). Give it a try! Partial credit for attempts…

 

Genetics Take Home Test

 
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Nerve Impulses Responsible For

Nerve Impulses Responsible For. 1-Nerve impulses responsible for the sensation of taste are carried in all of the following cranial nerves except:
VII
VIII
IX
X
2- Which of the following is not a part of the bony labyrinth?
Vestibule
Semicircular canals
Stapes
Cochlea
3- Nissl bodies are comparable to this organelle in other cells:
golgi apparatus
endoplasmic reticulum
mitochondria
lysosomes
4- Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the:
central canal
choroid plexus
Subarachnoid space
Arachnoid villi
5- If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose.
Sensory perception related to that pathway
Willed movement related to that pathway
Reflex activity only, related to that pathway
Both reflex activity and willed movement related to that pathway
6- An abnormally high metabolic rate could be associated with the functioning of the:
thyroid gland
parathyroid gland
posterior pituitary
thymus
7- Which of the following is a monoamine?
Insulin
Epinephrine
Testosterone
Parathyroid hormone
8- Regarding fetal circulation, the small vessel connecting the pulmonary artery with the aortic arch is called the:
ductus arteriosus
foramen ovale
ductus venosus
umbilical artery
9- Which of the following is not a leukocyte?
Basophil
Reticulocyte
Neutrophil
Monocyte
10- Depolarization of the SA node occurs during:
T wave
P wave
QRS complex
P-Q interval
11- Which of the following is not a chemcial buffer used in the blood?
Bicarbonate
Phosphate
Potassium
Protein
12- Lymph from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs is received by the:
right lymphatic duct
inguinal duct
thoracic duct
aorta
13- Which of the following is not an antigen presenting cell?
Dendritic cell
Macrophage
T cell
B cell
14- The type of immunity produced by vaccination would be:
active natural immunity
passive natural immunity
active artificial immunity
passive artificial immunity
15- Which of the following is involved in nonspecific resistance?
NK cell
B cell
T cell
C cell
16-If the blood ph decreases below normal:
the kidney tubules secrete less hydrogen ions blood to urine
the kidney tubules secrete more hydrogen ions from blood to urine
the kidney tubules secrete more sodium ions the urine
both a and c
17-Which of the following is not a normal constituent of urine?
nitrogenous wastes
hormones
pigments
plasma protoins
18-The most dangerous of the electrolyte imbalances is:
Na+
K+
CI+
Ca++
19-Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver?
hepatic artery
hepatic portal vein
ductus venosus
renal artery
20-Which of the following vitamins is not stored in significant amounts in the body and must be continually supplied to the diet?
vitamin D
vitamin K
vitamin C
vitamin E

Nerve Impulses Responsible For

 
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